2013年6月28日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-879

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)

Questions et réponses: 612 Q&As

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NO.1 The Key Distribution Center (KDC) is a central part of the Kerberos authentication system. How should
the system running the KDC be configured?
A. It should be a hardened, minimized system.
B. It should be a hardened, non-networked system.
C. The KDC implementation employs cryptography and can therefore run securely on an ordinary
multi-user system.
D. For improved security, users must log in to the KDC before authenticating themselves, so it must be a
multiuser system.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have been asked to implement defense in depth for network access to a system, where a web
server will be running on an Internet-facing network interface. Which is NOT contributing to the defense in
depth?
A. running the web server in a zone
B. using svcadm to disable unused services
C. using IP Filter to limit which network ports can be accessed from the Internet
D. using VLANs on a single network interface instead of using multiple network interfaces
E. using TCP wrappers to limit from which system SSH be used to connect to the system
Answer: D

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NO.3 You decided it was worth maintaining an extremely paranoid policy when configuring your firewall rules.
Therefore, you had your management approve the implementation of a security policy stance to deny all
inbound connection requests to your corporate network. How is it possible that you still suffer from remote
exploits that your adversaries are using to obtain interactive sessions inside your firewall?
A. TCP splicing is easy to do.
B. Internal software may be vulnerable.
C. UDP vulnerabilities are well-known and exploited.
D. ICMP hijacking attacks can still succeed through any firewall.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The company security policy now requires very detailed auditing of all actions. This includes capturing
all executed commands together with their arguments and the environment variables.
After activating auditing on all Solaris 10 systems, the security auditor complains about having to check
the audit trail on each individual host. He asks for a central place to capture all audit trails. Using standard
Solaris 10 security features, which is a solution to this problem.?
A. Configure auditd to send email with the events.
B. Configure auditd to send the output using syslog to a central loghost.
C. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using NFS on a central server.
D. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using LDAP in a central directory.
Answer: C

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NO.5 One of the operators of the mainframe group was moved to the UNIX group and tasked to activate and
configure password history. For every user, the last 10 passwords should be remembered in the history. In
what file is the size of the password history configured?
A. /etc/shadow
B. /etc/pam.conf
C. /etc/default/passwd
D. /etc/security/policy.conf
Answer: C

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NO.6 Within the context of file integrity, rules can be implemented to change the scope of the Basic Audit
and Report Tool (BART) manifest. Given the rule file: /home/bert/docs *.og[dt] CHECK all IGNORE mtime
Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. All files on the system will be checked.
B. The last modification time of all checked files will not be checked.
C. Key words such as CHECK and IGNORE can NOT be used in a rule file.
D. Only files with extension .ogt and .ogd in the directory /home/bert/docs will be checked.
E. All files on the system will be checked, except for files with extensions .ogt and .ogd in the directory
/home/ bert/docs.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which two tasks does the Key Distribution Center (KDC) perform? (Choose two.)
A. issues service tickets
B. authenticates services
C. issues ticket-granting-tickets
D. validates passwords sent in clear text
E. provides private sessions to services
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Your company is running a DNS test server on the internal network. Access to this server must be
blocked by using IP Filter. The administrator prefers that this access control is not obvious to someone
trying to contact the server from the outside. Which rule implements the access control but hides the use
of IP Filter to the outside?
A. pass in quick on eri0 from 192.168.0.0/24 to any
B. block in quick proto udp from any to any port = 53
C. pass out quick on eri0 proto icmp from 192.168.1.2 to any keep state
D. block return-icmp(port-unr) in proto udp from any to 192.168.1.2 port = 53
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-879   certification 1Z0-879

NO.9 A security administrator has a requirement to deploy the Solaris Security Toolkit onto all Solaris servers
in the department. In this environment, there are a variety of platforms and operating system versions
deployed. Onto which two platforms and operating system combinations can the Solaris Security Toolkit
be deployed in a supported configuration? (Choose two.)
A. x86, Solaris 2.4
B. x64, Solaris 9
C. x86, Solaris 10
D. SPARC, Solaris 2.6
E. SPARC, Solaris 8
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 A new security related patch has been released for the Solaris OS. This patch needs to be applied to
the system that functions as your web server. The web server is configured to run in a non-global zone.
Can you just use patchadd to apply the patch to the global zone to update the web server zone?
A. No, you need to shut down the web server zone first.
B. Yes, patches will be automatically applied to all zones.
C. No, you need to apply the patch to the web server zone separately.
D. Yes, but you must make sure that the web server zone is booted first.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A security administrator creates a directory called prevoy with the following access control policy:
$ getfacl prevoy # file: prevoy # owner:
secadm # group: secadm user::rwx group::r-x #effective:r-x mask:r-x other:r-x default:user::r-default:user:
sysadm:rw- default:group::r-- default:group:sysadm:rw- default:mask:rwx default:other:--- Into this
directory, the security administrator creates a file called secrets. The ls command reports the following for
the prevoy directory and secrets file: $ ls -ld . secrets drwxr-xr-x+ 2 secadm secadm 512 Jun 6 16:38 .
-r--r-----+ 1 secadm secadm 0 Jun 6 16:38 secrets Which two actions can be successfully taken by the
sysadm role? (Choose two.)
A. The sysadm role can read the secrets file.
B. The sysadm role can write to the secrets file.
C. The sysadm role can remove the secrets file.
D. The sysadm role can create new files under the prevoy directory.
E. The sysadm role can change the Access Control Lists of the prevoy directory.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which option is used in /etc/vfstab to limit the size of a tmpfs file system to 512MB to prevent a
memory denial of service (DoS)?
A. size=512m
B. maxsize=512
C. minsize=512
D. swapfs=512mb
Answer: A

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NO.13 Due to changes to the security policy of your organization, access restriction must be applied to
systems. The changes specify that access to systems through the ftp protocol is NOT allowed according
to the Human Resources department, which has the 10.10.10.0/24 address space assigned. TCP
wrappers have been enabled for the ftp daemon, and these files have been configured: # cat
/etc/hosts.allow in.ftpd: ALL # cat /etc/ hosts.deny in.ftpd: 10.10.10.0/24 Despite the implemented
configuration, Human Resources is still able to access systems through the ftp protocol. What action must
be taken?
A. The ftp daemon must be restarted.
B. The inetd daemon must be restarted.
C. The entry in the hosts.deny file is wrong and must be changed.
D. The entry in the hosts.allow file is wrong and must be changed.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which are two advantages of the Service Management Facility compared to the init.d startup scripts?
(Choose two.)
A. It restarts processes if they die.
B. It handles service dependencies.
C. It has methods to start and stop the service.
D. It specifies what the system should do at each run level.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 A security administrator is required to validate the integrity of a set of operating system files on a
number of Solaris systems. The administrator decides to use the Solaris Fingerprint Database to validate
configuration and data files as well as binaries and libraries. What command, available by default in
Solaris 10, will help the security administrator collect the necessary information that will be used with the
Solaris Fingerprint Database?
A. md5sum
B. digest
C. encrypt
D. elfsign
E. cryptoadm
Answer: B

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NO.16 A cryptographically signed patch provides system administrators with assurance that the patch
possesses certain qualities. Which two qualities are assured when a patch signature is verified? (Choose
two.)
A. The patch has a verified origin.
B. The patch has NOT been modified since it was signed.
C. The patch was created by a Sun Certified Systems Engineer.
D. The contents of the patch have NOT been revealed to anyone who does NOT have a Sun service plan.
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
You maintain a minimized and hardened web server. The exhibit shows the current credentials that the
web server runs with. You receive a complaint about the fact that a newly installed webbased application
does not function. This application is based on a /bin/ksh cgi-bin script.
What setting prevents this cgi-bin program from working?
A. The system might NOT have /bin/ksh installed.
B. The server is NOT allowed to call the exec system call.
C. The server should run with uid=0 to run cgi-bin scripts.
D. Some of the libraries needed by /bin/ksh are NOT present in the webserver's chroot
environment.
Answer: B

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NO.18 The /etc/default/passwd file contains a number of configuration parameters that can be used to
constrain the character composition of user passwords. What is one of the dangers of having password
composition too tightly constrained?
A. Password complexity rules apply only to the English alphabet.
B. The entropy of the resulting password strings will be very high.
C. Duplication of encrypted user password strings is much more likely.
D. Limited password value possibilities can simplify brute force attacks.
E. Passwords are harder to compute when using many character classes.
Answer: D

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NO.19 After a recent audit, you have been requested to minimize an existing Solaris system which runs a third
party database application.
Which two should you do before starting to minimize the system? (Choose two.)
A. Back up the system.
B. Remove any unneeded patches.
C. Install the SUNWrnet metacluster.
D. Remove any unneeded packages.
E. Confirm with the vendor of the database software that they support minimization.
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 Given: jupiter:$md5,rounds=2006$2amXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.:12210:::::: What is the
characteristic of this /etc/shadow entry?
A. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with salt 2006$2amXesSj5$, and with the encrypted password
$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
B. User jupiter uses the 2a hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
C. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
D. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with no salt, and with the encrypted
password $rQmXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Packet filters and firewalls are an important component of any defense-in-depth security strategy.
Which two types of threats can IP Filter be deployed as an effective countermeasure against? (Choose
two.)
A. a Christmas Tree scan
B. an attempt to log in to a system using SSH by an unauthorized user
C. an attempt to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability in a web storefront application
D. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an authorized
network
E. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an
unauthorized network
Answer: A,E

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NO.22 To harden a newly installed Solaris OS, an administrator is required to make sure that syslogd is
configured to NOT accept messages from the network. Which supported method can be used to
configure syslogd like this?
A. Run svcadm disable -t svc:/network/system-log.
B. Edit /etc/default/syslogd to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
C. Edit /etc/rc2.d/S74syslog to start syslogd with the -t option.
D. Edit /lib/svc/method/system-log to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
Answer: B

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NO.23 A security administrator has a requirement to help configure and deploy a new server. What are two
security tasks that the security administrator should perform? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the server to use LDAP for authentication.
B. Configure network interfaces and routing information.
C. Install a DTrace probe to capture the use of privileges.
D. Disable any network services that are NOT being used.
E. Apply software patches to correct security vulnerabilities.
Answer: D,E

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NO.24 You are configuring a new system to be used as an intranet web server. After you have installed the
minimal amount of packages and patched the system, you added the appropriate web server packages
(SUNWapch2r and SUNWapch2u). By default, the web server daemon will be started using UID
webservd and the basic privilege set. To comply with the company's policy of least privilege, you need to
minimize the privileges that the web server will have. What will you modify to specify the privileges that
the web service will run with?
A. the PRIV_DEFAULT setting in /etc/security/policy.conf
B. the defaultpriv setting of webserverd in /etc/user_attr
C. the privileges property of the web service in the SMF repository
D. the privs property of the web service in /etc/security/exec_attr
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which two commands are part of Sun Update Connection? (Choose two.)
A. /usr/bin/pkgadm
B. /usr/bin/keytool
C. /usr/sbin/smpatch
D. /usr/sbin/patchadd
E. /usr/bin/updatemanager
Answer: C,E

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NO.26 You have been asked to grant the user ennovy, a member of the staff group, read and write access to
the file / app/notes which has the following properties: ls -l /app/notes -rw-rw---- 1 root app 0 Jun 6 15:11
/app/notes Which options will NOT grant the user the ability to read and write the file?
A. usermod -G app ennovy
B. setfacl -m user:ennovy:rw- /app/notes
C. setfacl -m group:staff:rw- /app/notes
D. usermod -K defaultpriv=basic,file_dac_read,file_dac_write ennovy
Answer: D

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NO.27 Solaris Auditing supports the selective logging of which two kinds of events? (Choose two.)
A. file access by selected users
B. access to selected files by all users
C. selected users making outbound network connections
D. password changes which do not meet the system password policy
Answer: A,C

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NO.28 An Internet service provider is offering shell accounts on their systems. As a special service,
customers can also apply for a root account to get their own virtual machine. The provider has
implemented this by using zones, and the customers get root access to the non-global zone. One of their
customers is developing cryptographic software and is using the ISP machine for testing newly developed
Solaris crypto providers. What kind of testing is available to this developer?
A. The developer is able to test newly developed user-level providers.
B. The developer is able to test newly developed kernel software providers.
C. The developer can NOT test newly developed providers in a non-global zone.
D. The developer is able to do the same tests as if developing as root in the global zone.
Answer: A

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NO.29 A security administrator is required to periodically validate binaries against the Solaris Fingerprint
Database. While attempting to capture MD5 file signatures for key Solaris OS files, the security
administrator encounters the following error: digest: no cryptographic provider was found for this
algorithm -- md5 What command should the administrator use to help determine the cause of the
problem?
A. crypt
B. digest
C. kcfadm
D. openssl
E. cryptoadm
Answer: E

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NO.30 A security administator has a requirement to make an encrypted backup copy of an application and its
data, using the AES algorithm, so that it can be safely transmitted to a partner. Which two command
sequences can be used to generate an encrypted backup of the files under /app1? (Choose two.)
A. crypt < /app1/* > app1.backup.aes
B. encrypt -a aes -d /app1 -o app1.backup.aes
C. tar cf - /app1 | gzip -d -e aes > app1.backup.aes
D. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ crypt -a aes > app1.backup.aes
E. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ encrypt -a aes -o app1.backup.aes
F. tar cf - /app1 |\ openssl enc -out app1.backup.aes -aes-128-cbc
Answer: E,F

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-560

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Unified Business Process Management Suite 11g Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are the two places that you can see a visual representation of the path a running process has
taken? Select two.
A. BPM Workspace
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Process Composer
D. JDeveloper MDS Explorer
E. WebLogic Console
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Identify one activity that is used to create a process hierarchy as a parent child relationship.?
A. Sequence Flow
B. Call Activity
C. Service Task
D. Send Task
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which start event is allowed in a subprocess?
A. Timer Start Event
B. Boundary Event
C. Message Start Event
D. None Start Event
Answer: D

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NO.4 A task form is generated as a (n) __________.
A. portlet that gets called in the BPM Workspace
B. generic JSP page that is displayed in an I Frame in the BPM Workspace
C. bounded task flow that is called by the BPM Workspace
D. unbounded task flow that is called by the BPM Workspace
Answer: D

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NO.5 BPM capability maturity levels describe__________.
A. the capabilities of the BPM business analyst
B. the length of time the BPM application has been in production
C. the strategic and tactical levels of enterprise adoption of BPM
D. BPM concepts, consistently applied, facilitating sharing and reuse
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two are true about project data objects? Select two.
A. Any process in the project can access a project data object.
B. The value of a project data object does not vary between processes.
C. Project data objects can be only used as input arguments to a process.
D. Project data objects can be used in data associations and expressions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two are predefined instance attributes that can be used in data associations and expressions?
Select two.
A. ActivationCount
B. Component
C. LoopCounter
D. String
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which three tasks need to be accomplished to allow successful publishing of process metrics to BAM?
Select three.
A. setting BPM project preferences to enable BAM as a data target
B. configuring the BAM Adapter on the SOA server
C. updating the Enterprise Manager configuration for Disable Action
D. importing BAM dashboards
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 You can implement complex server-side validation logic to the task form by using a custom__________.
A. data control
B. managed bean
C. EL script
D. UI component
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two features are provided by BPM Process Analytics? Select two.
A. simulation for a BPM process
B. easy-to-use process metric collection
C. easy-to-use modeling tools
D. custom reporting dashboards
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-561

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle FLEXCUBE Universal Banking 11 Basic Implementation Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 In which depreciation method does the depreciation amount specified by the bank on a fixed asset does
not remain constant throughout that asset s useful life?
A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Activity Depreciation Method
D. Sum of Digits Depreciation Method
Answer: D

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NO.2 Oracle FLEXCUBE Branch Teller can perform multiple operations using the DD Teller screen. Which are
valid Teller DD operations?
A) DD issue against GL
B) DD issue against Walkin
C) DD liquidation against GL
D) DD sale against account
A. A,B and C
B. A, B, CandD
C. AandC
D. D
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-561 examen   1Z0-561

NO.3 What is true about Dormancy Days in Account Class?
A. MarkCustomer Account as Dormant as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and
credittransactions for the number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
B. Close Customer Account as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and credit
transactionsforthe number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
C. AutomaticallyTick No Debit and No Credit flag as part of EOD batch process if there areno debit are
credit transactions for thenumber of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
D. Mark the customer linked to the Customer Account as Dormant.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statements are true in regards to Change Class?
A) Different Association, Application and Liquidation events will be available.
B) Different Basic Amount Tags will be available.
C) Different Third-Party Types will be available.
D) Different User-Defined Fields will be available.
A. A. and B
B. C and D
C. A and D
D. B and D
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which can be restricted for a facility?
A) Customers B) Branches C) Products D) Currencies
A. All
B. A, B and D
C. A, C and D
D. B, C and D
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-561   1Z0-561   1Z0-561   1Z0-561

NO.6 Which definitions does Bank Parameter Maintenance allow?
A) Account Class Mask Definition
B) CIF Mask Definition
C) Product Mask Definition
D) GL Mask Definition
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. B and D
Answer: C

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NO.7 When is the "Year-end P/L Account" (specified at the Bank level) used.?
A. when a particular GL is closed
B. whenthe GL to which year-end balancesshould be posted is not specified inAccounts
C. when all year-end transactions pertaining to Memo GL are to be posted
D. when previous year adjustment entries are to be posted
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-561   1Z0-561   1Z0-561   1Z0-561

NO.8 In which conventions is currency rounded?
A) Truncate
B) Round Up
C) Round Down
D) All the above
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. D
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-561   1Z0-561

NO.9 A bank has ICCF Rule implemented to collect its processing charges, but due to regulation changes
now it can no longer levy these charges on the transactions.
What changes are required in Oracle FLEXCUBE to implement new requirement?
A. Amend therespective products and select the "Stop Application" flag in the Charge Definition screen.
B. Unlock the ICCF Rule and delink all the attached products.
C. Reverse the ICCF Rule.
D. Delete the ICCF Rule.
Answer: D

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NO.10 An MM Borrowing contract has been created. The contract value date is 0l-Jan-2010 and maturity date
is 31-Mar-2010. The customer has approached the bank and requested for an extension of the contract
with a maturity date of 02-Apr-2010.
From which screen of the MM module, can the extension of this contract be performed?
A. MM Rollover screen
B. MM Contract Schedule screen
C. MM Value Dated Amendment screen
D. from all of these three screens
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-508

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g General Ledger Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 An invoice with two lines is entered, later that day an adjustment is made to the invoice to add
another line. At the end of the day, the invoice is sent to the Fusion Accounting Hub. How many
events would you create?
A. Twoevents: one for invoice creation and one for the adjustment
B. Oneeventforinvoice creation; adjustment happened before transaction sent to the Fusion
Accounting Hub
C. Threeevents: one for invoice creation and two for line creation
D. Fourevents: one for invoice creation, one each for the two lines arid one for the adjustment
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-508 examen   1Z0-508 examen

NO.2 When reconciling transactions, accounted amounts in a reconciliation report may be different
due
to differences in the currency conversion rates used. To mitigate the differences in the account
balances you should ____________.
A. Run the report using an additional common currency conversion rate
B. Run additional reports using a number of varied currency conversion rates
C. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Receivables account and rerun the report
D. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Payables account and rerun the report
Answer: D

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NO.3 XYZ Company has two departments: Marketing and Finance. The Finance Department has two
Functional divisions: receivables and payables. Select the flow for establishing hierarchy.
A. Hierarchy between functional divisions only
B. Hierarchy between departments only
C. Hierarchy between the organization and its departments, and between the departments and
their respective functional divisions
D. hierarchy between the organization and its departments and functional divisions only
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-508 examen   1Z0-508

NO.4 Identify two INVALID features of POV in Financial Reporting Studio.
A. Multiple grids cannot be Included in a report.
B. To identify that a dimension is set for grid POV, text row foot note should be added for a
gridPOV for a dimension.
C. A memberselection function with CurrentPOV as the member parameter changes to a User
POV when members are selected from a row, column or page axis on a grid.
D. POV book is specific to any report or grid object in report in that book.
E. All POVs allow a single member to be set for a dimension.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Choose the two Oracle Hyperion Reporting and Analysis products and artifacts, that can be
imported into financial Reporting.
A. Dynamic Report (* .des)
B. Impact Manage Transformation Scripts (*. Js)
C. Snapshot Reports (*.rpt)
D. Books. (*.kbk)
Answer: C,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-508   1Z0-508   1Z0-508

NO.6 What are NOT included in the intercompany reconciliation reports?
A. Clearing company balancing lines
B. Intercompany receivables and intercompany lines generated by the intercompany balancing
feature
C. Intercompany receivables and Intercompany payables lines generated for the provider and
receiver of each intercompany transaction
D. Ledger balancing lines generated when the primary balancing segment value is in balance
butneither the second balancing segment northird balancing segment is out of balance; clearing
company balancing lines
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where do you perform real-time, ad hoc queries from a data warehouse?
A. General Accounting and Journals dashboards
B. Oracle Transaction Business Intelligence
C. Oracle Business Intelligence Analytics
D. Account Monitory and Account Inspector
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-508   1Z0-508 examen   1Z0-508

NO.8 The Receivables and Payables accounts that are automatically generated by intercompany
transactions use rules and attributes in what order?
A. Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger Level Rules;Chart of
Account Rules
B. Ledger entity Level Rules; ledger Level Rules; Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing
Segment Rules
C. Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
D. Ledger Level Rules;Primary Balancing Segment Rules;Ledger Entity Level Rules; Chart of
Accounts Rules
E. Chart of Account Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules, Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-508   1Z0-508 examen   certification 1Z0-508

NO.9 During the analysis phase of the implementation, it was discovered that there were some
expense
entries that are paid in the current month for services rendered in the next month, the client wants
to defer the expense and recognize it in the next month. What would you recommend?
A. Create two accounting events: one for payment and one for recognition.
B. Use Account Derivation rules to create two different entries.
C. Use multiperiod accounting-enabled Journal Line Types.
D. Use Journal Line Definitions.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-508   1Z0-508

NO.10 Identify the option that needs to be selected at the header level when assigning a header
level
subledger Journal Rule Set.
A. Accounting Date
B. Description
C. Supporting Reference
D. Ledger
E. Currency
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: UM0-300

Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional advanded exam)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C

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NO.2 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. objects continue to exist
C. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-300 examen   certification UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.4 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object?
(Choose two)
A. No new classifiers are supplied.
B. A new classifier is an abstract class.
C. The old and new classifiers are identical.
D. All classifiers are removed from the object.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.7 What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. send a request to a port
B. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
C. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
D. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
Answer: C

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NO.8 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. AcceptCallAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-300 examen   certification UM0-300   certification UM0-300

NO.9 Which action does NOT require classifiers as static inputs?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. CreateObjectAction
C. ReclassifyObjectAction
D. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
E. ReadIsClassifiedObjectAction
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.11 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and
"large-scale" aspects of information processing environments?
A. black-box semantics
B. ports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
D. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
A. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
D. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
E. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
Answer: D

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NO.14 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which action can continue to be enabled after it executes?
A. ReplyAction
B. ReadExtentAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. BroadcastSignalAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.16 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no
exception parameters declared?
A. ignored
B. handled by a default handler
C. appended to an exception log
D. sent to the "ExceptionManager" object
E. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
Answer: E

OMG   UM0-300   certification UM0-300

NO.17 What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.18 What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and
each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most
one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any
number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

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NO.19 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component
from his company's development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces
of the BoosterMotor component's specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose
two)
A. failure mode use cases
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component's isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
Answer: AC

OMG   certification UM0-300   certification UM0-300

NO.20 By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose
three)
A. import
B. inheritance
C. ownership
D. dependency
E. power types
F. association end subsets
Answer: ACD

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Code d'Examen: 050-690

Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell network management;netware 6.5)

Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

050-690 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/050-690.html


NO.1 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.2 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.3 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.4 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.5 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.6 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.7 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.8 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.9 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.10 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.11 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.12 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.13 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.14 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.15 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.16 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.17 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.18 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.19 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

certification Novell   050-690 examen   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690

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Code d'Examen: 50-690

Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell network management;netware 6.5)

Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

50-690 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/50-690.html


NO.1 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.2 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.3 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.4 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.5 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.6 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.7 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.9 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.10 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.11 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.12 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.13 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.14 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.15 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.16 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.17 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.18 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.19 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

NO.20 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

certification Novell   50-690   50-690   50-690

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