CompTIA meilleur examen 225-030, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 225-030
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CDIA+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 During discovery phase interviews with key personnel, a previously unknown critical document type is
identified. What should the next step be?
A. Ignore the document type in order to avoid scope creep
B. Include the document type in the project scope
C. Document the discovery and complete a change order request form
D. Discuss alternatives to including the document type
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030   225-030 examen   225-030

NO.2 A company has a single call center. It will introduce new products that will increase customer service
calls. The company wants to handle an increasing number of calls without adding personnel or
decreasing customer service levels. Which aspect of workflow technology should it consider?
A. Pre-retrieval of customer folders
B. Sorting of documents in a work queue
C. Load balancing
D. Work monitoring
Answer:A

certification CompTIA   225-030   225-030   225-030

NO.3 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town. The
documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to capture the
documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person capturing the
documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. volume of the documents on file.
D. number of file cabinets.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When reviewing potential software choices to propose to a client, the MOST important aspect to
consider from the following is:
A. the price of the potential software solution.
B. how well the software meets the clients needs.
C. the cost of the annual maintenance agreement of the software.
D. how robust the software is.
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030 examen   225-030

NO.5 Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?
A. Ethernet and TCP / IP
B. Project charter and project plan
C. E-mail and FTP
D. All-hands meetings and intranet postings
Answer: D

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NO.6 A proposed scanner uses TIFF Group 4 compression. What will be the average size of a black and
white A4 sized
(8.5
inches x 11 inches or 216 mm x 279 mm) document at 600 dpi (24 dots per mm)?
A.
50 K bytes
B.
180 K bytes
C.
210 K bytes
D.
380 K bytes
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   certification 225-030

NO.7 A company would like to scan documents for disaster recovery purposes. Which system would be most
appropriate?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Image Management System (IMS)
C. Electronic Document Management System (EDMS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Many of the documents to be scanned by a customer are sales invoices with a yellow background. A
feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:
A. image enhancement.
B. deskew.
C. color dropout.
D. color enhancement.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer:A

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NO.10 A document that would address the repurposing or reorganization of staff, the benefits of a new
system, and the increased market value of staff due to new skills is called a:
A. cultural change management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. human resource plan.
D. project objectives document.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030 examen   225-030

NO.11 While validating requirements, it becomes apparent that multiple solutions could fit the customers
needs. The consultant should:
A. pick the solution they feel is best suited.
B. choose the least expensive option in terms of price to help win the business.
C. present the alternatives to the customer for discussion.
D. pick the most feature rich solution.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A client wishes to establish a Document Management System (DMS) for handling a large volume of
standard documents to be scanned. The client wants to enable search capabilities for certain information
on the documents. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
A. Form recognition and entire document search
B. Form recognition and index search
C. Zonal OCR and entire document search
D. Zonal OCR and index search
Answer: D

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   certification 225-030   certification 225-030

NO.13 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new version.
Which one of the following should be done?
A. Upgrade after the project completion date
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Inform the business sponsors
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   225-030   225-030 examen   225-030

NO.14 All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests.
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer:A

certification CompTIA   certification 225-030   225-030   225-030

NO.15 A company is required to create a training class for a proposed Electronic Document Management
System (EDMS). All of the following factors would be considered for end-user training EXCEPT:
A. the assessed skill level of individuals.
B. the document management needs of the organization.
C. the architecture of the network.
D. the current manual processes regarding documents.
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   225-030 examen   225-030   225-030

NO.16 A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the
following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?
A. Checksumming
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Watermarking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D

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NO.17 All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:
A. work monitoring.
B. support for multiple queues based on work type.
C. sorting queues in date order.
D. pending or holding items.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   certification 225-030

NO.18 The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.
All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document
Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per
week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   certification 225-030   certification 225-030

NO.19 A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of
documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the
following BEST describes the records storage management process?
A. The customer does not have a records management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D. The customer has a document capture process.
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030 examen   certification 225-030   225-030

NO.20 The proposed project plan requires that documents must have a file plan and track all access
attempts. What MUST be part of this solution?
A. A records management system
B. A storage management system
C. A scan subsystem
D. Annotation and redaction capabilities
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: SY0-101
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION)
Questions et réponses: 340 Q&As

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NO.1 A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)
B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-101   SY0-101 examen

NO.2 Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota.
Answer: DE

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NO.3 WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won't support the product if the latest version is not
installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be
enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.
D. NESSUS.
Answer: C

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NO.7 IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF

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NO.8 Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

CompTIA   SY0-101   certification SY0-101

NO.9 To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-101   certification SY0-101   SY0-101 examen

NO.10 Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. verifies the validity of an email address.
B. corrupts the mail file.
C. wastes company bandwidth.
D. installs Trojan horse viruses.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B

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NO.12 A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of
the following security principles?
A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A URL for an Internet site begins with 'https:' rather than 'http:' which is an indication that this web site
uses:
A. Kerberos.
B. PGP.
C. PKI.
D. SSL.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.16 A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these
changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
Answer:A

CompTIA   SY0-101   SY0-101

NO.18 The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The
MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
Answer:A

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NO.20 In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.
E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE

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Dernières CompTIA JK0-016 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-016
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 700 Q&As

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NO.1 Everyday around lunch time there is network latency on the Windows proxy server 10.1.1.7. Which of
the following network utilities can a technician run in order to determine the severity of the latency?
A.arp -t 10.1.1.7
B.tracert -t 10.1.1.7
C.ping -t 10.1.1.7
D.nbtstat -t 10.1.1.7
Answer:C

CompTIA   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.2 Which of the following is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address?
A.netstat
B.rarp
C.arp
D.nslookup
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain level authentication on a wireless
network?
A.WEP
B.RADIUS
C.TKIP
D.WAP
Answer:B

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.4 Which of the following software types would BEST be used for identifying an attack?
A.IDS
B.Packet sniffer
C.IPS
D.Port scanner
Answer:A

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NO.5 Automatic private Internet protocol addressing (APIPA) assigns IP addresses from which of the
following ranges?
A.172.16.x.x
B.10.0.x.x
C.192.168.x.x
D.169.254.x.x
Answer:D

CompTIA examen   JK0-016   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.6 Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.IMAP4
D.Telnet
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which of the following is an advantage of 100Base-FX over 100Base-TX?
A.Ease of installation
B.Uses a more durable cable
C.Faster transmission speeds
D.Longer cable runs
Answer:D

CompTIA   JK0-016   JK0-016   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016 examen

NO.8 A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following
types of cable?
A.CAT6
B.25 pair
C.Fiber optic
D.100 pair
Answer:B

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.9 Which of the following is part of the IP protocol suite and is used to monitor network managed devices?
A.SMTP
B.LDAP
C.SMB
D.SNMP
Answer:D

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NO.10 Implementing a set of policies and procedures that define the corporate information is confidential and
training employees on these procedures can help prevent which of the following?
A.Patch management
B.Man-in-the-middle attacks
C.Smurf attacks
D.Social engineering
Answer:D

CompTIA   JK0-016   certification JK0-016

NO.11 Which of the following routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing table?
A.OSPF
B.IS-IS
C.EIGRP
D.BGP
Answer:D

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.12 Remote users are having problems accessing files from a file server. Which of the following should a
technician check FIRST?
A.Connectivity
B.User accounts
C.Network resources
D.Access rights
Answer:A

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.13 Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Mesh
D.Ring
Answer:B

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NO.14 Convert the following binary string to its dotted decimal address:
11000000.10101000.01100011.00011010
A.192.168.99.26
B.192.168.101.26
C.192.168.101.34
D.192.168.99.34
Answer:A

CompTIA   JK0-016   certification JK0-016

NO.15 SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A.Transport
B.Application
C.Network
D.Presentation
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which of the following is the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer:A

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NO.17 A company is in the process of upgrading their network infrastructure to support new VoIP telephony
equipment. Which of the following is a primary feature to consider when selecting a new switch to support
the phones?
A.PoE
B.Modular chassis
C.Port mirroring
D.VPN capability
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following is correct when converting 192 to binary?
A.11000000
B.00110000
C.00001100
D.00000011
Answer:A

CompTIA examen   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.19 Which of the following cable types allows for the maximum cable run distance?
A.Multi-mode fiber
B.Single-mode fiber
C.CAT3
D.Coaxial
Answer:B

CompTIA   certification JK0-016   JK0-016   certification JK0-016

NO.20 Which of the following can operate at both layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model?
A.Hub
B.Repeater
C.Switch
D.Bridge
Answer:C

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NO.21 A network using RIP has taken several minutes to begin routing traffic around a failed piece of
equipment. Which of the following could be implemented to improve convergence time?
A.Replace RIP with static routes so dynamic updates are not sent.
B.Replace RIP with a distance-vector routing protocol such as RIP version 2.
C.Replace RIP with a link-state routing protocol such as OSPF.
D.Replace RIP with an exterior gateway protocol such as BGP.
Answer:C

certification CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.22 Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer:B

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.23 Which of the following protocols permits secure polling of network devices?
A.SCP
B.SSH
C.SNMPv2
D.SNMPv3
Answer:D

CompTIA   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.24 Which of the following VPN protocols runs over port 1723 and allows encryption to be done at the data
level?
A.PPTP
B.SLIP
C.PPPoE
D.RAS
Answer:A

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.25 A technician is setting up a wireless network using WEP and DHCP. The technician has set the
channel and SSID on the client workstation. Which of the following is the remaining step to complete the
configuration?
A.Enter the username and password.
B.Enter an IP address for the client.
C.Change the SSID.
D.Enter the encryption key.
Answer:D

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NO.26 A technician needs to connect a laptop via the small office, home office (SOHO) wireless access point.
When the technician does a site survey using the laptop the wireless network is not discovered.
Computers previously on the wireless network were connected, and the wireless card appears to be
working. Which of the following could be causing the issue?
A.The WEP key is not correct.
B.The wireless router does not have adequate AC power.
C.The SSID is set to not broadcast.
D.The laptop is running on Windows Service Pack 1.
Answer:C

CompTIA   JK0-016   certification JK0-016   JK0-016   certification JK0-016   certification JK0-016

NO.27 Which of the following is used to simplify the process of setting up a network and the administration of
the network?
A.DNS
B.ZEROCONF
C.WINS
D.SNMP
Answer:B

CompTIA examen   JK0-016 examen   certification JK0-016   JK0-016 examen

NO.28 At which of the following layers of the OSI model would a repeater operate?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 5
D.Layer 7
Answer:A

CompTIA   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.29 A technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a clients machine. The technician needs to see
the current NetBIOS configuration and open connections, which of the following commands would allow
this information to be displayed?
A.nbtstat
B.netstat
C.msconfig
D.ipconfig
Answer:A

CompTIA   certification JK0-016   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.30 Which of the following mechanisms is used to calculate back-off time on an Ethernet link after a
collision?
A.Weighted Random Early Detect (WRED)
B.Spanning Tree
C.CSMA/CD
D.CSMA/CA
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U31
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Strata IT Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 276 Q&As

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NO.1 You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains
that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type
of expansion card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen   JK0-U31
Explanation:
PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer
Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a
small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of
the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer
option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a
legacy
graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus
designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct
access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of
up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot.
Reference:
http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm

NO.2 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at
a company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on
the new PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose. What is User State Migration Tool (USMT)? User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used
to migrate user files and settings during large deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft
Windows Vista operating systems. It captures desktop, and application settings, as well as user
accounts and users' files, and then migrates them to a new Windows installation. It helps
administrators to improve and simplify migration process. USMT can be used for both side-by-side
and wipe-and-load migrations. USMT component SCANSTATE.EXE
is used to collect the files and settings from the source computer and the LOADSTATE.EXE
component is used to restore the user state onto the destination computer. Answer option D is
incorrect. Moving the Windows registry will not work and could in cause major problems on the
new system. This is especially true if the new system has a more modern version of Windows.
Answer option B is incorrect. The disk management
tool is used for managing disk partitions. Answer option A is incorrect. A complete backup will likely
cause problems on the new installations. This is especially true if the new system has a more
modern version of Windows.
Reference: http.//technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb457090.aspx

NO.3 Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and all-digital
audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-
channel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources,
such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits
all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to
accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B.
Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is
designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is
incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video
transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals.
One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a
type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video
schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite
video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using S- Video, the device sending
the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an
S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a
standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group
(DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards
have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA
connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections.
However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of
connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only
connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I
connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set
of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual
links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female
connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference:
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High-Definition_Multimedia_Interface"

NO.4 Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C

CompTIA   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate
mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer
is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer
to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the
saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate
mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled,
users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically
hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to
set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In
this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and,
as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power
is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply
is disconnected or interrupted, data might be
lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers.
Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and
non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device
can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode
is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It
bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or
system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.

NO.5 Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD)
card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a
memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer
option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a
communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is
incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed
barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader.

NO.6 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information,
such as Internet surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Spyware is a program that takes partial control over a user's computer without user's permission.
Spyware programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing habits,
and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also interfere with the control of a
user's computer, such as installing additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing
Web sites blindly, etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A honeypot is a term in computer terminology
used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized
use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears
to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain
information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option A is incorrect. The term malware
refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware
is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option D
is incorrect. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to
replicate itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using
the resources of computers as well as shutting down computers.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"

NO.7 Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A, C

CompTIA   JK0-U31   JK0-U31
Explanation:
A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They
usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been
unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that
converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic
equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect.
Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal
electric shocks.

NO.8 You are implementing wireless access at a defense contractor.
Specifications say, you must implement the AES Encryption algorithm. Which encryption standard
should you choose?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. TKIP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen   JK0-U31
Explanation:
WPA 2 (Wi Fi Protected Access 2) uses AES encryption, which is endorsed by the National Security
Administration. What is AES? The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is an encryption standard
adopted by the U.S. government. The standard comprises three block ciphers, AES-128, AES-192,
and AES-256. Each AES cipher has a 128-bit block size, with key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits,
respectively. The AES ciphers have been analyzed extensively and are now used worldwide, as was
the case with its predecessor, the Data Encryption Standard (DES). AES was announced by National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) as U.S. FIPS PUB 197 (FIPS 197) on November 26, 2001
after a 5-year standardization process in which fifteen competing designs were presented and
evaluated before Rijndael was selected as the most suitable. It became effective as a standard on
May 26, 2002. As of 2009, AES is one of the most popular algorithms used in symmetric key
cryptography. It is available in many different encryption packages. AES is the first publicly
accessible and open cipher approved by the NSA for top secret information. Answer optiond A and
B are incorrect. WEP and WPA both use the RC-4 Stream cipher. What is RC4? RC4 is a stream cipher
designed by Ron Rivest.
It is used in many applications, including Transport Layer Security (TLS), Wired Equivalent Privacy
(WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), etc. RC4 is fast and simple. However, it has weaknesses that
argue against its use in new systems. It is especially vulnerable when the beginning of the output
key stream is not discarded, nonrandom or related keys are used, or a single key stream is used
twice. Some ways of using RC4 can lead to very insecure cryptosystems such as WEP . Answer option
C is incorrect. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol is a substitute for WPA, meant to replace WEP
without requiring that hardware be replaced.
Reference: http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.11i

NO.9 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31   JK0-U31
Explanation:
The maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port is 4.5 meters. What is IEEE
1394? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial
bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include
consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394
is also known as Fire wire. Answer option D is incorrect. The maximum cable length to connect a
device to USB
1.1 and USB 2.0 ports is 5 meters. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus
standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides
the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging,
which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single
USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives,
keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0
has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.

NO.10 Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion
cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards
connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is
LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In
LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several
slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX
are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for
smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards.

NO.11 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Energy Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. The Energy
Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. Devices carrying
the Energy Star logo are products, such as computer devices, peripherals, kitchen appliances, etc.
These products generally use 20% to 30% lesser energy than required by the federal standards. The
Energy Star program was created by the 'United
States Environmental Protection Agency' (US EPA) as an attempt to reduce energy consumption and
greenhouse gas emission by power plants. The program has helped in spreading the use of LED
traffic lights, efficient fluorescent lighting, and power management systems for office equipments.
Answer option C is incorrect. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), frequently
referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. It is a
United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for
assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was
used to evaluate, classify and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage
and retrieval of sensitive or classified information.
It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally
published in 2005. Answer option B is incorrect. The standby mode is a power saving feature for
computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low
power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby
mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is
disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on
ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This
mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option D is incorrect. The
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) is a power- management specification
developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba. It enables an operating system to control the amount of
power supplied to each device attached to a computer by turning off peripheral devices when they
are not in use. It defines power management on a wide range of mobile,
desktop, and server computers and peripherals. It also enables manuurers to produce computers
that automatically power up as soon as a user touches the keyboard.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy_Star"

NO.12 Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C

CompTIA   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual
transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes
more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix
screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors.
LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect.
SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer
option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix.

NO.13 Which of the following storage device uses SRAM or DRAM?
A. USB flash drive
B. Solid-state drive (SSD)
C. Blu-ray Disc
D. CD drive
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent
data. An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface, thus easily replacing it in most applications. It is
also known as solid-state hard disk drive. SSDs have no moving parts; hence, they are less fragile
and silent than hard disks. As there are no mechanical delays, SSDs usually enjoy low access time
and latency. An SSD using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive,
which should not be confused with a RAM disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Blu-ray Disc, also
known as Blu-ray or BD, is an optical disc storage medium. It is designed to supersede the standard
DVD format for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3 games, and other data, with up to 25 GB
per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. Blu-ray Disc was developed by the Blu-ray Disc
Association, a group representing makers of consumer electronics, computer hardware, and motion
pictures. The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs. It is called Blu-ray
Disc because of the blue-violet laser which is used to read the disc. Blu-ray uses a shorter
wavelength, a 405 nm blue-violet laser, and allows for almost six times more data storage than on a
DVD. Answer option D is incorrect. CD drive is used for read/write operations on CDs. The CD drives
that are capable of performing write operations on CDs are also known as CD burners.
However, most of the CD drives on computers have read only capability. CD drives with read-only
capability are also known as CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only Memory) drives.
A CD drive is installed inside the computer case and can be connected to IDE, SCSI, SATA, or firewire
interface. Answer option A is incorrect. A USB flash
drive consists of flash memory data storage device integrated with a USB (Universal Serial Bus) 1.1
or 2.0 interface.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solid-state_drive"

NO.14 Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to
time to protect a computer from new viruses?
A. Definition
B. Modules
C. Service pack
D. Hotfix
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a
computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file
contains information
about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them.
Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates
that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under
specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are
generally
related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer
option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service
pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system
with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements.
Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"

NO.15 Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/ 2
D. DB-9
Answer:
A, C
Explanation:
The PS/ 2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal
Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC,
and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware
devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed
while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral
devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data
transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0
is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and
DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins,
whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means
for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors,
9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single
wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial
signals can travel much farther without degradation.

NO.16 Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
The following can be used to accomplish authentication.
1.Password
2.Biometrics
3.Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove
identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of
verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process
compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication
server. What is biometrics?Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical
characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities
to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal
scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device
or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication.
Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication.

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Code d'Examen: IK0-002
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (I-NET+ CERTIFICATION)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as an:
A. FAQ
B. RFC
C. PDP
D. PDF
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is not a required HTML Tag?
A. <TEXTAREA>
B. <Body>
C. <Head>
D. <HTML>
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.4 How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   IK0-002   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.5 Which supports encryption?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. PPP
D. SLIP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which executes on server side?
A. CGI
B. C++
C. JavaScript
D. VBG
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which device cannot be infected with a virus?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Gateway D. NIC
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the default port for FTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: A

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002

NO.9 What is the default port for SMTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.10 When a system is sent ICMP echo requests repeatedly, it is a
A. PING attack
B. SYN attack
C. SPOOFING
D. Telnet attack
Answer: A

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NO.11 Web graphics 40mm x 60mm. Which format do you load to achieve the fastest download when user
browses?
A. 72dpi
B. 98dpi
C. 100dpi
D. 300dpi
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the default port for HTTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.13 How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which command matches IP address to MAC address?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. nbtstat
Answer: A

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NO.15 Within a DNS record where can you find the name of the administrator.
A. PTR
B. SOA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: B

CompTIA   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.16 What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

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NO.17 What do you need on your e-commerce system to process credit card transactions?
A. Online catalog
B. Virtual shopping carts/Checkouts
C. Merchant system
D. Intranet
Answer: C

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NO.18 What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

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NO.19 Your company has heterogeneous systems (different operating systems/machines). You want to have
a better security and you want your company to issue certificates for user communication. What server
should you implement?
A. Directory server
B. Certificate server C. Authentication server
D. Telnet server
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the default port for Telnet?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.21 What TCP/IP utility is used to see current contents of a packet on your computer?
A. tracert
B. protocol analyzer
C. ping
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   IK0-002   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002

NO.22 Your company has connection with the business partners. What is it called?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. Private network
Answer: B

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NO.23 What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

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NO.24 What do you call the first DNS server?
A. First
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Primary
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   IK0-002   certification IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.25 Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

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NO.26 You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are
concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   certification IK0-002   IK0-002   certification IK0-002   IK0-002 examen

NO.27 Which command checks the current open TCP/IP connections?
A. netstat
B. Ping
C. ipconfig
D. winipcfg
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which DNS record tells you mail servers?
A. PTR
B. RP
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.29 What network device enables you to communicate with other systems using different protocol?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.30 What are the best types of documents to distribute using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?
A. Memos
B. Orders and invoices
C. Reports
Answer: B

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CompTIA meilleur examen PK1-003, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PK1-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

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NO.1 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.2 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification PK1-003   certification PK1-003   certification PK1-003

NO.4 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.5 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

CompTIA   certification PK1-003   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003 examen

NO.7 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   certification PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen

NO.8 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.9 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.14 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

CompTIA   certification PK1-003   PK1-003   certification PK1-003

NO.17 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.18 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

CompTIA   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003 examen

NO.20 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen

NO.21 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.22 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003

NO.23 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.24 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.25 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen

NO.26 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.27 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.28 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.29 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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